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PROVE 1=2.......

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Post by Ayush Wed Oct 08, 2008 11:16 pm

IS THERE ANY1 WHO CAN PROVE 1=2 OR ANY OTHER INTEGER EQUAL TO SOME OTHER INTEGER??????
Ayush
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Post by Ayush Wed Oct 08, 2008 11:18 pm

IM GIVING 1 SOLUTION
IF U FEEL IT WRONG THEN DO TELL ME HOW

x^2 = x*x

x^2=x+x+x.......(x times)

differentiating both sides...

2x = 1+1+1+.......(x times)

2x=x

2=1

THATS IT
lol! Sleep
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Post by Ayush Wed Oct 08, 2008 11:20 pm

NOW HERE IS 1 MORE SOLUTION
ACTAUALLY I GOT THAT FROM RITURAJ ONLY(SRY RITU)

LET a=b
a*b=b*b
ab=b^2
substract a^2 frm either side
ab-a^2=b^2-a^2
a(b-a)=(b+a)(b-a)
devide both sides by (b-a)
den
a=b+a
if a=1
(a=b => b=1)

1=1+1
1=2

NOW HERE'S 1 MORE
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Post by Ayush Wed Oct 08, 2008 11:24 pm

WATCH 1 MOR

WE ALL KNOW THAT
0=0
1-1=2-2
1(1-1)=2(1-1)
1=2
THIS 1 IS QUITE KIDDY ACUALLY AND U CAN OFCOURSE SEE A BIG MISTAKE EASILY IN THIS
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Post by rt_08 Wed Oct 08, 2008 11:32 pm

hi ayush
ya ofcourse it is kiddy the second and the third one but the first one isnt Cool
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Post by Ayush Wed Oct 08, 2008 11:45 pm

YA 1AT 1 IS GUD FOR U ALL
BT REMEMBER MATHS IS FLAWWLESS, WITHOUT ANY MISTAKE
SO PT OUT THE HIDDEN MISTAKE
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Post by Ayush Wed Oct 08, 2008 11:47 pm

MEAN WHILE I GOT 1 MORE
1+1 =1+sqrt(1)
=1+sqrt((-1)(-1))
=1+sqrt(-1)sqrt(-1)
=1+i*i (we know i=sqrt(-1))
=1+i^2 (we know i^2=-1)
=1+(-1)
=1-1
=0


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Post by rt_08 Thu Oct 09, 2008 12:19 am

mistake is always x+x+x.............is not equal to $x^2$
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Post by rt_08 Thu Oct 09, 2008 12:20 am

hey y doesnt latex work!
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Post by Ayush Thu Oct 09, 2008 12:36 am

no
x^2 can be equal to x+x+x+x......
just add it x times
eg. 5^2=5+5+5+5+5
like here i added 5 five times
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Post by Infinity squared Thu Oct 09, 2008 11:09 am

i'll hav 2 see the first one
latex is still not uploaded

and well ayush i hav told u better methods than these isn't it??
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Post by rt_08 Thu Oct 09, 2008 10:42 pm

then giv them????????????
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Post by Infinity squared Fri Oct 10, 2008 11:56 am

Ayush wrote:
x^2 = x*x
x^2=x+x+x.......(x times)
differentiating both sides...
2x = 1+1+1+.......(x times)
2x=x
2=1

i can only say that u can't treat x as variable here....
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Post by Ayush Fri Oct 10, 2008 10:14 pm

ofcourse u can
wats the harm in differentiating the term by itself
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Post by Infinity squared Fri Oct 10, 2008 10:15 pm

i told u...

differential eqn
u can't do lik that
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Post by Ayush Sat Oct 11, 2008 9:29 pm

ok bossa
i agree to u
may b this is da rite ans
because sol^n cant be rite to bring 1=2 affraid affraid affraid
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Post by SKAND Mon Oct 13, 2008 11:53 am

i can't comment on dem(i am not able to understand flaw in 1st method)

all i know is something called boolean logic can be used to prove any no. equal to any no.(but its wrong)
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Post by rt_08 Mon Oct 13, 2008 5:06 pm

hey i hav studied boolean algebra
is it concerned with that???
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Post by SKAND Mon Oct 13, 2008 5:54 pm

probably yes

check wiki for it

actually i was reading a book on entertaining maths(means timepass maths) and there i found out this name

i don't have any idea except the name
in book they proved 1=2 and 3=4 only
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Post by Infinity squared Mon Oct 13, 2008 7:02 pm

o=ne no
n=2n <n can be nething>
by simple method--no boolean algebra Suspect
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Post by Ayush Mon Oct 13, 2008 9:21 pm

STOP THIS DISCUSSION NOW
STOP SUSPECTING MATHS
ITS FLAWLES

I KNW THE MISTAKE NOW
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Post by rt_08 Mon Oct 13, 2008 10:45 pm

ok lets stop the discussion
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Post by Infinity squared Tue Oct 14, 2008 11:21 am

everything has flaws!!!!!!

wait let me think of a better flaw drunk2
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Post by rt_08 Tue Oct 14, 2008 12:33 pm

u flaw-searcher!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
suspicious!!!!!!!!!!!!!!mathematician
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Post by Infinity squared Wed Oct 15, 2008 6:47 pm

well at the step when u get 2x=x
/implies x=0
its a differential eqn and x=0 is its solution Smile
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